Showing posts sorted by date for query question. Sort by relevance Show all posts
Showing posts sorted by date for query question. Sort by relevance Show all posts
Sunday, August 2, 2020
Friday, November 15, 2019
UGC NET is
a national level exam conducted by NTA. This is University Grants Commission to
certify the eligibility of candidates for the post of ‘Assistant
Professor’ or ‘Junior Research Fellowship’. NTA will conduct UGC
NET in December and June in one year.
UGC NET 2019 Exam Pattern Details
Since December 2018, UGC NET has
been conducted by National Testing Agency in the following pattern:
Paper
|
No. of question
|
Marks
|
Duration
|
Paper-1
|
50
|
100
|
Cumulative time duration of 3hours.
Shift 1: 9.30 AM – 12.30 PM Shift 2: 2.30 PM – 5.30 PM |
Paper-2
|
100
|
200
|
|
Total
|
150 MCQ
|
300
|
Mode of Exam
- UGC NET
will be conducted in Online mode.
- Each candidate will be allocated a desktop with a pre-installed software
specially created for the examination.
- Make sure
to check that the system and the mouse is working properly before the exam commences.
UGC NET Marking Scheme
- A uniform
marking scheme is followed in the exam i.e. for both Paper 1 and 2,
each correct answer will fetch you 2 marks.
- As per the
revised exam pattern of UGC NET exam, there is no negative marking
for incorrect answer.
- Hence, instead of skipping a question, one can use their calculated guess and mark the answer. UGC NET 2019 Syllabus (Updated)
- Syllabus for UGC NET 2019 Paper 1 and Paper 2 varies and are designed to test different skills of the candidates. A brief about both the papers are:
- UGC NET
Paper 1 Syllabus tests teaching and reasoning
ability, research aptitude, comprehension, divergent thinking
and general awareness of the candidate.
- UGC NET Paper 2 Syllabus is based on the subject chosen by the candidate. It tests candidate’s in depth knowledge and expertise in the respective subject.
Thursday, November 14, 2019
ASRB-NET in Agriculture extension education
1. Exam Pattern-
The ASRB NET exam pattern consists of one paper of 150 marks. The ASRB NET exam will carry 150 objective type multiple-choice questions. The test will be conducted for 2 hours. As per the marking scheme of ASRB NET, each question will carry one mark. The questions will be set as per the respective disciplines opted by the candidates. 1/3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer in the NET (I) 2019.
Examination
Maximum
marks
Duration
ARSB-NET
150
2 hours
The standard of the paper will be that of a Master’s degree of an Indian University in the relevant
Discipline.
Examination
Maximum
marks
Duration
ARSB-NET
150
2 hours
The minimum Marks for qualifying NET Exam--
Category
|
Marks
|
Percent
|
General
|
75.00
|
50%
|
OBC
|
67.5
|
45%
|
SC
|
60
|
40%
|
ST
|
60
|
40%
|
.The Examination will be conducted in online format at the designated Centers. The questions of the Examination will be available in bilingual form i.e.
Medium- Hindi and English medium.
Sunday, November 3, 2019
Question Bank ICAR-JRF, AIEEA-PG (Social Science)
Model Paper-2
1.
The term ANOVA was coined by
A)Poisson B)
Fisher C)Galton D) Mahalanobis
2.
Testing the equality of two variance
T-test
B) Z-test C) F-test D)
Chi square test
3.
Formula of CV
A)
SD/AM*100 B)
AM/SD*100 C) SD/AM D) NONE
4.
The term macroeconomics was coined by
A)
Galton B) Reigner
Frish C) J.M.Keynes D) Adam Smith
5.
Father of modern Economics
A)
Adam Smith B) Reigner Frish C) J.M.Keynes D)
Alfred Marshall
6.
Correlation coefficient lies between
A)
0 to 1 B)
-1 to +1 C)-∞ to +∞ D) 0 to ∞
7.
Testing the equality of more than two mean which test used
A)
T-test B) Z-test C) ANOVA D) Chi
square test
8.
Measures of dispersion
A)
Mode B) Median C)
Range D) Mean
9.
Standard deviation depends on change in
A)
Origin B) Origin and Scale C) Scale 4) None
10.
Long term loan is given for the period of:
A)
4 years B) 1 to 4 years C) more than 5 years
D) 2 to 5 years
11.
The Extension is derived from latin word, Where tensis means
A)
Out B) In C) Streching
D) Beyond
12.
The word “Learning By Doing”
A)
Morill B) John
Dewey C)Seeman 4) Knapp
13.
Unit of CV is
A)
mm B) Cm C)
Unitless D)One
14.
The first Agricultural University started in the year
A)
1947 B) 1956
C) 1966 D) 1959
15.First
governor of RBI
A)
A.D. Gorwala B) Williamson C) O.A. Smith D)
Oliver vostro
16.
The first multipurpose cooperative societies in India were established in
A) Bihar B) Orissa C)
West Bengal D) Karnataka
17.
Reward for entrepreneur is
A)
Rent B)Wages C) Profit D)
Interest
18.
The family of parametric distributions which has mean always less than variance
is:
(A)
beta distribution (B) lognormal distribution(C) Weibull distribution (D) negative
binomial distribution
19.The
distribution possessing the memory less property is:
(A)
gamma distribution (B)
geometric distribution (C) hypergeometric distribution (D) all the above
20.
Which one problem out of the four is not related to stratified sampling?
(A)
Fixing the criterion for stratification (B) Fixing the number of strata (C) Fixing the
sample size (D) Fixing the points of demarcation between strata
Friday, October 25, 2019
SYLLABUS OF FOOD SAFETY OFFICER
UNIT-I
Chemical bonds and forces, concept of pH and buffer, thermo chemistry, chemical equilibrium, chemical kinetics. Aliphatic and Aromatic hydrocarbons- concept of aromaticity, methods of preparation and chemical properties of alcohols, phenols, aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids, nitro compounds and amines. Different methods of purification, qualitative and quantitative analysis. Solutions- concentration terms, liquid- properties, surface tension, viscosity and its applications. Surface chemistry-adsorption, homogeneous and heterogeneous catalysis, colloids and suspension.
UNIT-II
Types of micro organism associated with food, their
morphology and structure, factors affecting their growth,
microbiological standards, sources of micro organism in food, some
important food spoilage micro organisms, fermentation- definition and
types, micro organisms used in food fermentation, dairy fermentation,
fermented foods- types, methods of manufacture for vinegar, sauerkraut,
soya sauce, beer, wine and traditional Indian foods.
UNIT-III
Bio molecules - carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and
nucleic acids, their classification, structure, bio synthesis,
metabolism and calorific value. Enzymes- classification, kinetics,
factors controlling enzyme activities, enzymes used during food
processing, modification of food by endogenous enzymes. Vitamins and
their types. Minerals- important minerals and their functions in human
body. Plant alkaloids and their uses. Animal and plant toxins. Toxic
substances and their metabolism- pesticides, metals, food additives etc.
UNIT-IV
Classification- five kingdom system upto phylum,
plants and animal products used as food by human. Culture of animals
used as food. Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells. Types of cells, animal
tissues and organs. Human physiology- Nutrition and Digestion.
Respiration- respiratory pigment, transport and gaseous exchange.
Excretion- structure of kidney and urine formation. Circulatory system-
Heart, Blood vascular system, blood and its components. Nervous system-
conduction of impulses. muscular system- types of muscles and muscle
contraction. Reproductive system. Endocrine system- hormones and their
role.
Immune system- types of immunity, antigen-antibody reaction. Diseases- deficiency
diseases,
|
communicable
|
diseases
|
and
|
diseases
|
caused
|
by
|
animals
|
(protozoans, helminthes, arthropodans).
UNIT –V
Genetically modified plants and animals, plant and animal tissue culture and its application, importance of GM-crops and their products, environmental bio technology- pollutants, Biomagnification and microbial bioremediation .
Statistical analysis- mean, median, mode, standard deviation, regression and co-relation, T-test, variance, chi-square test.
UNIT -VI
Salient features of agriculture with special
reference to Rajasthan. Soil Fertility and Management of Problematic
Soils in Rajasthan. Introduction to Dry land Farming and Agro-forestry. Introductory knowledge about Production Techniques of important field crops (Wheat, Mustard, Groundnut, Pulses, Bajra,
Maize). Horticultural crops (Citrus, Mango, Guava, Ber, Onion, Tomato,
Cucurbits, Chilli, Rose etc.) Spices and Medicinal crops (Cumin,
Fenugreek, Fennel, Coriander, Isabgol, Aloevera, etc.)
Important diseases and Pests of major Crops and their Management.
Importance of agriculture marketing. General awareness about Seed
science and Crop Physiology.
UNIT-VII
Importance of Livestock in Economy of Rajasthan.
Fundamentals of Livestock and Poultry Production. Artificial
insemination and Pregnant animal management. Laboratory diagnostics,
Important diseases of livestock and their management. Present status of
Milk and Milk products. Milk production and quality of milk. Milk
processing and packaging. Dairy equipments and utilities. Introduction
to livestock products.
UNIT-VIII
Present status of Food Technology in India and
Rajasthan. General methods of food preservation and food processing.
Importance of Post harvest technology of fruits and vegetables.
Technology for processed products like Squash, Jelly, Sauce, Pickles
etc. Post harvest Physiology and handling of fruits and vegetables.
Types and functions of Packaging materials used in fresh and processed
food. Food laws - brief review of regulatory status in India (FPO,
Prevention of Food adulteration Act, Food Safety and Standard Act,
Testing Food for its Safety, AGMARK). Hygiene and Sanitation (HACCP,
Good Manufacturing Practices, Good Laboratory Practices etc.)
UNIT-IX
Pre & Early history of Rajasthan. Age of Rajput: Major dynasties of Rajasthan and the
achievements of prominent rulers. Emergence of Modern Rajasthan: factors of Socio-Political awakening of 19th century; Peasants and tribal movements of 20th century; Political struggle of 20th century and the integration of Rajasthan.
UNIT-X
Visual Art of Rajasthan - Architecture of forts and
temples of Rajasthan; Sculpture traditions of Rajasthan and various
schools of painting of Rajasthan.
Performing Art of Rajasthan - Folk music and musical instruments of Rajasthan; folk dance and folk drama of Rajasthan.
UNIT-XI
Various religious cults, saints and folk deities of Rajasthan.
Various dialects and its distribution in Rajasthan; literature of Rajasthani language.
UNIT-XII
Geography of Rajasthan : Broad physical features- Mountains, Plateaus, Plains & Desert; Major rivers and lakes; Climate and Agro-climatic
regions; Major soil types and distribution; Major forest types and
distribution; Demographic characteristics; Desertification, Droughts
& Floods, Deforestation, Environmental Pollution and Ecological
Concerns.
UNIT-XIII
Economy of Rajasthan : Major Minerals-Metallic & Non- Metallic; Power Resources- Renewable and Non Renewable; Major agro based industries-Textile, Sugar, Paper & Vegetable oil; Poverty and Unemployment; Agro food parks.
Important Persons, Places and Current events of the
State. National and International events of importance. National and
International Organisations- (BIS, ICMR, ICAR, Council for Social
Welfare, APEDA, Export inspection Council, FAO,WHO,ISO,WTO).
* * * * *
Pattern of Question Papers :
- Objective Type Paper.
- Maximum Marks : 150
- Number of Questions : 150
- Duration of Paper : Three Hours
- All Questions carry equal marks.
- There will be Negative Marking.
Sources- RPSC Website
Thursday, October 24, 2019
June 2019 NTA UGC NET
Solved Question Paper-1
1. A shift in attitude
in respondents between two points during data collection is called
(1) Reactive effect
(2) Maturation effect
(3) Regression effect
(4) Conditioning effect
Answer: (3)
2. The time-frame in
which a study explores a situation or problem is also called the
(1) Reference period
(2) Age
(4) Retrospective time
Answer: (1)
3 The major
characteristic of correlation analysis is to seek out
(1) Differences among
variables
(2) Variations among
variables
(3) Association among
variables
(4) Regression among
variables
Answer: (3)
4. Which of the learner
characteristics will influence his/her perspective in a course of study?
i) Learner’s commitment
ii) Parents interest in
the learner
(iii) Prior knowledge of
the learner
(iv) Skill of the
learner in the concerned area
(v) Family size of the
learner
(vi) Socio-economic
background of the family to which the learner belongs
Choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (Iii)
(3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (1)
5. The performance of a
student is compared with another student in which type of testing?
(1) Criterion referenced
testing
(2) Diagnostic testing
(3) Summative testing
(4) Norm-referenced
testing
Answer: (4)
6. From the list given
below identify those which are called Non-probability sampling procedures’:
(i) Simple random
sampling
(ii) Dimensional sampling
(iv) Cluster sampling
(v) Quota sampling
(vi) Stratified sampling
Choose the correct
option
(1) (i), (ii) and (Iii)
(2) (ii), (iv) and (V)
(3) (i), (iii) and 6V)
(4) (ii). (iii) and (V)
Answer: (4)
7. The conceptual
framework in which a research is conducted is called a
(1) Synopsis of research
(2) Research design
(3) Research hypothesis
(4) Research paradigm
Answer: (2)
8. Which of the
following is an example of a maximum performance test?
(1) Personality tests
(2) Projective
personality tests
(3) Aptitude tests
(4) Interest and
attitude scales
Answer: (3)
Q.9 Which of the
strategies in the list given below will be associated with direct teaching?
(i) Providing examples
and explanation
(ii) Promoting inquiry
(iii) Focussing on
concepts
(iv) Giving review and
recapitulation
(v) Oering practice and
feedback
(vi) Problem raising and
problem-solving
Choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv) (v) and (vi)
Answer: (3)
10. From the list given
below identify those questions which are called process rather than content
based questions?
(i) Convergent questions
(ii) Divergent questions
(iii) Fact based
questions
(iv) Concept based
questions
(v) Open questions
(vi) Closed questions.
Choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (M
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (v)
Answer: (4)
Geography seeks to
understand the physical and human organization of the surface of the Earth. In
the field of geography, inter-related themes are frequently seen. These are
scale, pattern and process. Scale is defined as the level of structure on
organization at which a phenomenon is studied. Pattern is defined as the
variation observed in a phenomenon studied at a particular scale. The third
theme, process, further connects the first two. Process is defined as the
description of how the factors that aect a phenomenon act to product a pattern
at a particular scale. For instance, when a passenger on an aircraft looks out
of the window, the View changes according to the scale. At the global scale
when the aircraft maintains its height, he can see the chunks of clouds in all
their pattern, the sun or
the moon, as per the time. When the aircraft loses a little height, passengers
can see the land and water masses in their dierent colours and the shape of
land masses. At the continental scale, the passengers can see the shapes of the
land features and how they are distributed. The pattern emerges as the
variation of land and water and the proportion of each. Looking carefully,
passengers can note how each land mass aligns with the others and how each
mountain bears the signs of the process through which it emerged.
The
processes in a geography change in a regular and repetitive manner. One
instance of this is the annual solar cycle of the sun and the earth. Most
systems in nature display time cycles that are organised in a rhythm of their
own as these time cycles and natural processes are always active, the
environment of the earth is always in a state of dynamism. This environmental
change is not only the result of natural process but also the result of human
activity. Physical geography works towards understanding the interaction
between man and nature and also the results of this interaction in order to
manage global climate change better.
11. The time cycles of
the system of nature follow their own
(1) Path
(2) Rhythm
(3) Process
(4) Cycle
Answer: (2)
12. The view seen by a
passenger looking out of the window of an aircraft; will be affected by the
(1) Process
(2) Pattern
(3) Scale
(4) Rhythm
Answer: (3)
13. Physical geography
studies the results of the interaction between man and nature in order to
(1) Understand global
climate change
(2) Study the impact of
man’s activities on nature
(3) Address the issue of
global climate change
(4) Reduce man—animal
conflict
Answer: (3)
14. In geography,
pattern studies the variation observed in a phenomenon at
(1) A particular scale
(2) Any scale
(3) Every scale
(4) Most scales
Answer: (1)
15. The alignment of
landmass with other elements can be seen by a passenger on a flight on a
(1) Global scale
(2) Continental scale
(3) Local scale
(4) Time scale
Answer: (2)
16 Match Set ‘A’ with
Set ‘B’.
A (Media)
|
B
(Transmission/Communication)
|
(a) Audio
|
(i) Bandwidth
|
(b) Advertising
|
(ii) Linear
communication
|
(c) Internet
|
(iii) Non personal
Communication
|
(d) Newspaper www.netugc.com
|
(iv) Frequency
modulation
|
Choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
a
|
B
|
c
|
d
|
|
1.
|
iii
|
iv
|
ii
|
i
|
2.
|
i
|
ii
|
iii
|
iv
|
3.
|
iv
|
iii
|
i
|
ii
|
4.
|
ii
|
I
|
iv
|
iii
|
Answer: (3)
17. When subject and
predicate of both the premises are the same but they differ in quality only, it
is known as
(1) Contradictories
(2) Contraries
(3) Subaltern
(4) Super altern
Answer: (2)
18. Which of the
following fractions is the result of the sum of an integer and its reciprocal?
1. 15/8
2. 26/5
3. 36/7
4. 37/5
Answer: (2)
19. Mass media do not
have pre-determined functions for everyone and people use them the way they
like. This is suggestive of the fact that,
(1) Audiences are active
(2) Content is of little
significance
(3) Content lacks
plurality
(4) Audiences are
homogeneous
Answer: (1)
20. If proposition ‘All
republics are grateful’ is taken to be true then which of the following propositions can be false?
(i) Republics are not
grateful
(ii) Some republics are
not grateful
(iii) No republics are grateful
(iv) Some republics are
grateful
Select the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) only
(3) (i). (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (3)
21 Sanjay sold an
article at a loss of 25%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs. 175,
there would have been a gain of 10%. What was the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs. 350
(2) Rs. 400
(3) Rs. 500
(4) Rs. 750
Answer: (3)
22. A communication
process can be considered complete when
(1) The sender transmits
the message
(2) The message enters
the channel
(3) The message leaves
the channel
(4) The receiver
understands the message
Answer: (4)
23. A customer writes to
a bank, ‘Kindly send me a statement of my transactions in my savings bank
account ‘A’ during the last three months”. In terms of communication it will be
called
(1) Input
(2) Message
(3) Output
(4) Feedback
Answer: (2)
24. A train leaves Agra
at 5 am and reaches Delhi at 9 am. Another train leaves Delhi at 7 am and
reaches Agra at 10:30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?
(1) 6:36 am
(2) 6:56 am
(3) 7 am
(4) 7:56 am
Answer: (4)
25. The proposition ‘No
red is black is equivalent to which of the following propositions?
(i) No black is red
(ii) All red are black
(iii) Some red are not
black
(iv) Red is not black
Select the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) (i), (ii). (iii) and
(iv)
(2) (iii) only
(3) (1) and (iv)
(4) (iv) only
Answer: (3)
26. Given below are two
premises with four conclusions drawn from them.
Which of the following
conclusions could be validly
drawn from the premises?
Premises:
(i) Some bags are tables
(1i) All bags are
chairs.
Conclusions:
(a) Some tables are
chairs
(b) No chair is tablewww.netugc.com
(c) Some chairs are bags
(d) Some bags are not
tables
Select the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (b) only
Answer: (1)
27. The average of 35
raw scores is 18. The average of first seventeen of them is 14 and that of last
seventeen is 20. Find the eighteenth raw score.
(1) 42
(2) 46
(3) 52
(4) 56
Answer: (3)
28. Identify the
reasoning in the following argument: Pre-active stage of classroom teaching is
important just as pre-learning preparation stage of communication’
(1) Hypothetical
(2) Deductive
(3) Inductive
(4) Analogical
Answer: (4)
29. In the context of
communication, usual sequence is
(1) Language —> Communication
—> Society —> Civilization
(2) Communication —>
Society —> Language —> Civilization
(3) Communication —>
Language —> Society —> Civilization
(4) Language —>
Society —> Communication —> Civilization
Answer: (3)
30. If REASON is coded
as 5 and GOVERNMENT as 9, than what is the code for ACCIDENT?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9
Answer: (2)
Consider the following
table that shows expenditures of a company (in lakh rupees) per annum over the
given years. Answer the questions based on the data contained in the table:
31. The approximate
ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the total
expenditure on transport for all the years is
(1) 31 : 40
(2) 25: 36
(3) 27 : 30
(4) 31 : 36
Answer: (4)
32. The total amount of
bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent
of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
(1) 0.9%
(2) 1.3%
(3) 1.6%
(4) 2.0%
Answer: (2)
33. Total expenditure of
all the items in 2008 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure
in 2012?
(1) 66%
(2) 69%
(3) 72%
(4) 75%
Answer: (1)
34. The approximate
ratio between the total expenditure of the company in the year 2008 and the
total expenditure of the company in the year 2009 is
(1) 57: 75
(2) 52: 68
(3) 57 : 68
(4) 68 : 57
Answer: (3)
35. What is the average
amount of interest per year which the company had to pay (in Rupees) during
this period?
(1) 30.5 Lakh
(2) 32.7 Lakh
(3) 33.7 Lakh
(4) 35.5 Lakh
Answer: (3)
36. Which of the
following statements represent the main functions of UGC?
(1) Recognition of
institutions
(1i) Maintenance of
quality and standards
(Iii) Appointment of
Vice Chancellor
(iv) Giving grants to
institutions
(v) Making state
governments responsible for educational development
Choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (v)
Answer: (3)
37. The main aim of the
faculty recharge scheme of UGC was to
(1) Address the shortage
of faculty in higher education institution
(2) Upgrade the teaching
skills of the faculty
(3) Upgrade the research
infrastructure for the faculty in colleges and universities
(4) Strengthen the
academia — industry linkage
Answer: (1)
38. Which of the
following is an online store house of all academic awards like certificates,
diplomas, degrees marksheets etc?
(1) SWAYAM
(2) National Digital
Library
(3) National Academic
Library
(4) National Academic
Depository
Answer: (4)www.netugc.com
39. The convenient place
to store contact information for quick retrieval in e-mail is
(1) Address box
(2) Message box
(3) Address book
(4) Message book
Answer: (3)
40. Montreal protocol
aims at
(1) Reduction in
emissions of green house gases
(2) Phasing out ozone
depleting substances
(3) Prohibiting
transboundary movement of hazardous waste
(4) Enhancing
cooperation among UN member states for peaceful uses of nuclear energy
Answer: (2)
41. SMTP is an acronym
for
(1) Simple Mail
Transport Protocol
(2) Simple Mail Terminal
Protocol
(3) Simple Mail Transfer
Protocol
(4) Simple Mail
Transition Protocol
Answer: (3)
42. In large parts of
Eastern India, the ground water is contaminated by
(1) Arsenic
(2) Lead
(3) Mercury
(4) Nickel
Answer: (1)
(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Chlorine
(3) Oxygen
(4) Hydrogen
Answer: (1)
44. Two statements are
given
Statement
I: Earthquake ‘A’ is 5 on Richter scale and Earthquake ‘B’ is 8 on the
same scale. Earthquake ‘B’ has 1000 times the wave amplitude compared to ‘A’.www.netugc.com
Statement II: The
energy released in ‘B’ is three times that of ‘A’
Choose the correct
option:
(1) Statement I is
correct and Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I and II
are correct
(3) Statement II is
correct and I is incorrect
(4) Statement I and II
are incorrect
Answer: (1)
45. A computer has main
memory of 960 KBytes. What is the exact number of bytes contained in this
memory?
(1) 960 x 8
(2) 960 x 1000
(3) 960 x 1024
(4) 960 x 1024 x 1024
Answer: (3)
46. Name the scheme
which facilitates academic and research collaboration between Indian
Institution and the best institution in the world
(1) ICSSR — IMPRESS
(2) Sta Development
Scheme
(3) SPARC
(4) Institutional
Development Scheme
Answer: (3)
47. Which of the
following file format is not a video file format?
(1) AW
(2) .MOV
(3) .MP4
(4) .JPEG
Answer: (4)
48. For the day to day
administration of University, which of the following bodies is responsible?
(1) Senate
(2) Syndicate/ Executive
council
(3) Student council
(4) Academic council
Answer: (2)
49. Efficiency of
electrical power generation is least amongst the following
sources of energy in case of
(1) Solar
(2) Wind
(3) Geothermal
(4) Nuclear
Answer: (3)
50. Which of the
following is a non-conventional learning programme in higher education?
(1) Swayam
(2) Face-to-face
teaching-learning
(3) Tutorial class
(4) Seminar
Answer: (1)
